Here's an article about another weird discrepancy, the very low comparative rates of coronavirus in Eastern Europe and the Balkans. The article attributes it to early lockdown and more compliance by historically obedient countries like [of course] Greecehttps://www.theguardian.com/world/2020/may/05/why-has-eastern-europe-suffered-less-from-coronavirus-than-the-west …
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nothing so simple.
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Japan explanation is the funniest.
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Isn't this to be expected with something very sensitive to initial conditions and with complex factors? Would you expect uniform outcomes? I agree we don't know yet which of the proposed factors are real and to what degree, and there may be others we don't know yet.
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