That depends. If there were good anti-slave arguments in existence, then those who chose to discount those arguments were morally bad. If there were no good arguments, then they could have been simply ignorant.
Slavery in Ancient Greece was ubiquitous. Let's assume every citizen of Athens, for example, accepted the legitimacy of slavery. Would that mean there were no morally good Athenians?
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Hmmmm. Not sure - seems to suggest it is only morally bad to hold slaves if you know it's wrong (not quite what you claimed, but I think that's where your position would lead).
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Their assent to slavery may have been based on bad empirical knowledge. If so, then their mistake is not moral.
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Well that's just not true. It depends entirely on what is at stake empirically, and also on whether they were careless about the truth, etc.
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