What's the logic behind the claim that men particularly are duty bound to "call out" male sexual harassers?
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I'm guessing it's something like sexual harassment is a function of patriarchal society; all men benefit from patriarchy; therefore...
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So it's asymmetrical advantage that means calling out harassers is not supererogatory but rather a matter of duty? Is that it?
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Notion of supererogation itself is complex; how to unpack that, in the context of yr 1st question; & what is the intent of the question?
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Thought process: I'm pretty much a recluse. Can it really be true I've a duty to call out sexual harassment just because I'm the same sex...
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as people who tend to harass (such that I'm culpable if I don't)? If it is true, what makes it true? That's it, pretty much.
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Few further half-formed thoughts about what it might mean if one were morally compelled to act simply by virtue of one's unchosen identity.
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Ah. Yr narrow interpretation of the initial claim might have led you s'where not worth arguing for. Not unusual for thought experiments
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Not necessarily. I'm not sure I don't have a moral duty to intervene. But whether it exists simply because I'm male is... well difficult.
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Seems reasonable. Something you dislike about it?
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There are certainly problems with it. For example, if sexual harassment is a function of patriarchy, then are individual men culpable?
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If they are culpable, then much harder to argue that there's a duty to call them out (because necessary condition seems to be personal).
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Appeal to duty here is to men in HW's env. because they have influence. Duty also function of power to assist/cause change. Why yr tangent?
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In & of itself, think that makes intervention supererogatory, not duty. But men in HW env are likely complicit. I was talking more generally
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Complicity not nec. gender-specific. Re yr initial Q, it is likely more a soc sci one, not philo - assumptions in Q to b unpacked 1st?
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