If that person was no longer actively creating new works, their death is no proximate cause for cessation of benefits derived from them.
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Replying to @svenosaurus @PhilosophyExp
I don't see how the two situations differ. They seem to be exact mirror images of each other.
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Replying to @svenosaurus
The two situations differ because being saddened by a death is *not* the same as celebrating a death. Morally, emotionally, different.
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Replying to @PhilosophyExp
Mirror images, as I said. Mutatis mutandis. Sadness and joy are symmetrical feelings, aren't they?
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Replying to @svenosaurus @PhilosophyExp
Rationally, it doesn't make sense that many people felt sad when Harper Lee died. But it's a pretty normal human reaction.
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Replying to @svenosaurus
Right. But joy/sadness at a person's death or suffering (regardless of whether we know them), aren't *morally* equivalent.
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Replying to @PhilosophyExp
You are emotionally indifferent to 99.999% of human deaths. You'd go insane if you weren't.
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Replying to @svenosaurus @PhilosophyExp
The conditions that make us react with sadness are worth defining explicitly (though space & time don't allow now).
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Replying to @svenosaurus @PhilosophyExp
As are conditions that make us react with joy - you started w/ proximate cause of cessation of harm.
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Replying to @svenosaurus @PhilosophyExp
But the sadness-causing conditions are broader than purely rationally justified, and so are the joy-causing conditions.
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But again, it doesn't make responses morally equivalent. It's possible lots of reasons cause joy, & joy is always wrong (& sadness never).
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