Can you understand the impulse to be saddened by the death of a famous person you never knew personally but whose work you admired?
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Replying to @svenosaurus @PhilosophyExp
If that person was no longer actively creating new works, their death is no proximate cause for cessation of benefits derived from them.
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Replying to @svenosaurus @PhilosophyExp
I don't see how the two situations differ. They seem to be exact mirror images of each other.
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Replying to @svenosaurus
The two situations differ because being saddened by a death is *not* the same as celebrating a death. Morally, emotionally, different.
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Replying to @PhilosophyExp
Mirror images, as I said. Mutatis mutandis. Sadness and joy are symmetrical feelings, aren't they?
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Replying to @svenosaurus @PhilosophyExp
Rationally, it doesn't make sense that many people felt sad when Harper Lee died. But it's a pretty normal human reaction.
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Replying to @svenosaurus
Right. But joy/sadness at a person's death or suffering (regardless of whether we know them), aren't *morally* equivalent.
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Replying to @PhilosophyExp
You are emotionally indifferent to 99.999% of human deaths. You'd go insane if you weren't.
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Replying to @svenosaurus @PhilosophyExp
The conditions that make us react with sadness are worth defining explicitly (though space & time don't allow now).
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Replying to @svenosaurus @PhilosophyExp
As are conditions that make us react with joy - you started w/ proximate cause of cessation of harm.
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Yes, and conditions make a difference, but they don't suggest moral (or emotional) equivalence of response of sadness as opposed to joy.
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