Unless a death is the proximate cause of the cessation of great harm, I cannot understand the impulse to celebrate: http://freethoughtblogs.com/iris/2017/05/18/well-this-certainly-cheered-me-up-roger-ailes-has-died/ …
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Replying to @PhilosophyExp
Can you understand the impulse to be saddened by the death of a famous person you never knew personally but whose work you admired?
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Replying to @svenosaurus @PhilosophyExp
If that person was no longer actively creating new works, their death is no proximate cause for cessation of benefits derived from them.
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Replying to @svenosaurus @PhilosophyExp
I don't see how the two situations differ. They seem to be exact mirror images of each other.
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Replying to @svenosaurus
The two situations differ because being saddened by a death is *not* the same as celebrating a death. Morally, emotionally, different.
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Replying to @PhilosophyExp
Mirror images, as I said. Mutatis mutandis. Sadness and joy are symmetrical feelings, aren't they?
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Replying to @svenosaurus @PhilosophyExp
Rationally, it doesn't make sense that many people felt sad when Harper Lee died. But it's a pretty normal human reaction.
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Replying to @svenosaurus
Right. But joy/sadness at a person's death or suffering (regardless of whether we know them), aren't *morally* equivalent.
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Replying to @PhilosophyExp
You are emotionally indifferent to 99.999% of human deaths. You'd go insane if you weren't.
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Right, but that's not the same as celebrating (taking joy in somebody's death despite knowing loved ones will be suffering).
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