Unless a death is the proximate cause of the cessation of great harm, I cannot understand the impulse to celebrate: http://freethoughtblogs.com/iris/2017/05/18/well-this-certainly-cheered-me-up-roger-ailes-has-died/ …
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Rationally, it doesn't make sense that many people felt sad when Harper Lee died. But it's a pretty normal human reaction.
Right. But joy/sadness at a person's death or suffering (regardless of whether we know them), aren't *morally* equivalent.
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That's not obvious. Let's go halfway: are sadness and indifference to a person's death morally equivalent? But we are indifferent to most.
Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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