Unless a death is the proximate cause of the cessation of great harm, I cannot understand the impulse to celebrate: http://freethoughtblogs.com/iris/2017/05/18/well-this-certainly-cheered-me-up-roger-ailes-has-died/ …
-
I don't see how the two situations differ. They seem to be exact mirror images of each other.
The two situations differ because being saddened by a death is *not* the same as celebrating a death. Morally, emotionally, different.
-
-
Mirror images, as I said. Mutatis mutandis. Sadness and joy are symmetrical feelings, aren't they?
-
Rationally, it doesn't make sense that many people felt sad when Harper Lee died. But it's a pretty normal human reaction.
-
Right. But joy/sadness at a person's death or suffering (regardless of whether we know them), aren't *morally* equivalent.
-
That's not obvious. Let's go halfway: are sadness and indifference to a person's death morally equivalent? But we are indifferent to most.
End of conversation
New conversation -
Loading seems to be taking a while.
Twitter may be over capacity or experiencing a momentary hiccup. Try again or visit Twitter Status for more information.