Here's a tweeted thought experiment...
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First proposition: A sexual encounter in the absence of informed consent is always immoral (& assault, even if it doesn't reach legal bar).
2nd prop: Informed consent exists only if you disclose everything a reasonable person would anticipate your partner would want to know.
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A married person cheats on their spouse, doesn't inform them, and carries on having sex with them.
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Is that sexual assault? If it isn't, where does the reasoning go wrong?
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I think I could concede both those points, yet still think there's a problem in case I describe (not casual, not passion).
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You describe a genuine, big problem, but it muddies matters distractingly to describe it as "assault". @AngryGradTeache
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So you reject the first proposition - or at least the second part of the first proposition?
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