There is no central sociological authority that could make such a thing true. Sociology is a contested discipline, & sociologists will...
And once again, this is complete nonsense. There is no such thing as an inviolate sociological definition.pic.twitter.com/ZGFtadbwje
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will define concepts according to particular theoretical frameworks, etc. If anybody tells you different, even if you can find a textbook...
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that appears to suggest otherwise, it's a nonsense. Good sociologists define their terms, & then they work from there. They certainly don't
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think that the way a term is used in a sociological sense is exhaustive of all the meaningful usages of a word. The idea is ridiculous.
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This is not to argue there is no merit in a conception of racism that includes a proper understanding of power. Of course there is.
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But it is the case that if somebody claims racism is x, because sociologists say it is x, then they have no clue what they're talking about.
End of conversation
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His definition doesn't even defend his point. If "prejudice" > 0 then "racism" > 0, unless "power" is negative...
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If in China, where white people wield no pwer and started using racial slurs, does that mean I not being racist?
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Precisely. Here's a short post I wrote on this subject. http://www.skepticink.com/flyingscotsman/2015/08/07/pseudo-liberals-check-your-understanding-of-privilege/ …
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People who invent such hard and fast rules are rarely correct as your analogy shows.
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It's not about whether a definition is "correct" - you can define things how you like - it's...
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about (a) it's theoretico-logical coherence; (b) it's utility; & (c) scope. The problem here is
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the insistence (a) that there is a definitive sociological definition; (b) that this somehow...
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magically fixes the meaning of the term so that all other usages are incorrect.
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Notice how they appear to be fine with prejudice, because they see it as a lesser crime than racism.
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Though they do get a bit twitchy if you start saying "racially motivated bigotry"...
End of conversation
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