Imagine this scenario: Husband cheats on wife; she doesn't know; he continues to have sex with her; she has never indicated...
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Replying to @PhilosophyExp
that in this situation she would not want to know; & we can take it that she would consider it a relevant fact in terms of her decision...
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Replying to @PhilosophyExp
to continue having sexual relations with her husband. Consent is normally said to be *informed* if person consenting knows & understands...
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Replying to @PhilosophyExp
@PhilosophyExp It would work the same if sexes were reversed too. No exception to logical absolute there.1 reply 0 retweets 0 likes
Replying to @quirkathon
@quirkathon Yes, logically the same if sexes reversed. It's simply about what constitutes informed consent, etc.
9:57 AM - 11 Apr 2015
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