I'm curious about this moral dilemma. A married person is having an affair. Their spouse doesn't know, and they continue having sex with their spouse. In this situation, is their spouse's consent (to the sexual act) informed consent?
Happy to bite the bullet. Yes, you would have to disclose - in certain sorts of sexual encounter. What about this case?https://www.bbc.com/news/uk-wales-47240670 …
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Ohhhh, ok. I'll have to think. At first glance I'd say not rape.People lie all the time - whole invented backgrounds, bigamy, all kinds of things. People are used all the time too.On the other hand, a whole lot of people need to be fired in that police department- that was wrong
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But one wouldn't want to claim in that situation the consent was informed. It clearly wasn't - whatever the difficulties in moving the concept over from the medical realm. And it is partly about consequences and future harm - i.e., psychological harm of discovering betrayal.
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The types of betrayal are infinite and frequent.There is no way to draw a line as to what should be disclosed and what needn't.This is where general morality, character, honor come in.I would beware of broadening rape too much.
End of conversation
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