Final hour - vote now!https://twitter.com/PhilosophyExp/status/1177226506369732612 …
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It's the latter. My view is you have to disclose everything a reasonable person would suppose your partner would want to know given the particular circumstances in which the sexual encounter is taking place. Otherwise, it's rape - even if it doesn't meet legal definition.
But this scenario suggests people might not agree - they think there isn't informed consent, but it's not rape. Possibly because they are interpreting the question legalistically (i.e., does it meet the legal definition of rape). Hard to know given limitations of Twitter!
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I'm not sure. It feels difficult to call it rape without knowing both partners' conceptualisations of the relationship. Interesting to think about. I definitely feel different about eg one partner not informing the other that they have hepatitis.
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It does get complex in the details. What about if they're both having affairs that the other doesn't know about, and would want to know about? (Not a wildly unusual situation.)
- End of conversation
New conversation -
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