I'm curious about this moral dilemma. A married person is having an affair. Their spouse doesn't know, and they continue having sex with their spouse. In this situation, is their spouse's consent (to the sexual act) informed consent?
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The question is problematic: by definition it's not "informed"; is "being informed" a requirement to avoid a technical definition of rape? The common sense response is, I suppose, option 2. But in, say, the HIV epidemic of the 1980s, I think the answer might be different.
Well, 25% of people seem to think it is informed - though that is a bit baffling! I'm inclined towards the fourth option.
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Well, if (as our degrees suggest) we are philosophers, that's one approach. In fact, that's an interesting question about philosophy and what it does. In my view, it's a process of searching, ever more nit-pickingly, for the answer to the question: what do we mean by?
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