I'm curious about this moral dilemma. A married person is having an affair. Their spouse doesn't know, and they continue having sex with their spouse. In this situation, is their spouse's consent (to the sexual act) informed consent?
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How can anybody say it's informed consent when the spouse doesn't know?
I've been wondering the same thing myself. It is a slightly complex issue because "informed" doesn't mean informed about everything. But hard to think that anybody in this situation would suppose their spouse wouldn't consider the information relevant to their consent!
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The presumption is that if the spouse knew of the affair they would withdraw their consent.
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Exactly. And that's something the person having the affair can reasonably to be supposed to know. (As opposed to say knowing that their spouse doesn't want to have sex with anybody who once war purple socks.)
End of conversation
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