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If you concede that ineluctable biological factors might explain the differences between male and female athletic performance then it opens up the possibility that they might be in play in other kinds of inequality.
That's dangerous territory, partly because there are echoes of scientific racism, etc., but also because it subverts the sociological modus operandi. It suggests sociologists might be looking in the wrong place for explanations, etc.
Maybe this is a daft question but how does correction of social conditions work if you don’t also recognise material factors? The immutable conditions? The parameters you must work within? If you get what I mean, this isn’t my comfort zone. 
Not a daft question at all. It won't work, obviously, but sociologists will likely always be able to point to additional mutable factors to explain why things aren't getting better. The moment of truth, so to speak, will be indefinitely postponed.
Anyway, what this often adds up to is a knee jerk rejection of biology as a causal factor in systemic inequality. Of course, biology will often not be a factor - or only a very minor factor - but athletic performance is not one of those cases!
That’s all really interesting. My wee brain is whirring. In some ways I’m glad I only ever skimmed the surface with basic first year sociology because I’m not convinced I would’ve survived a deeper dive.
I wouldn't survive a deep dive now. But 30 years ago, I might have been tempted to make Cashmore's argument. Sociology is political & moral commitment made somewhat rigorous, and given a veneer of scientific plausibility.
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Any thoughts on where his position might come from? From an academic perspective? Or is he just a blether?