Jeremy Stangroom

Oh well, if countless people have explained it, then it must be true. Silly me! Thanks for putting me straight!

That sounds, atypically for you, like a bad faith reply. It clearly distorts what I said. BTW, if I do need to explain the difference, I will, later today.

And let me take a guess at your "explanation". 1. Structural history of racism vs. vulgarity; 2. Barr's long history of problematic tweets, etc, (indicating not merely an intemperate tweet); 3. Barr is white, Bee is a woman. There's asymmetricality there in terms of target.

If that's the kind of thing you've got in mind, no need to repeat, I'd thought of all that approximately half a second after I started thinking about the issue (as evidenced in my first tweets about it yesterday).

So how are they then even remotely similar?

How is using a misogynistic slur, which has a long history of being used to silence and intimidate women, and which forms part of the linguistic weaponry ubiquitously employed by the alt-right, remotely similar to using a racist slur? Seriously, that's your question?

You can't seem anything *remotely* similar? This is Feminism 101. I could provide a reading list. You do understand how the word "cunt", when deployed in this sense, forms part of the language of sexual violence? I mean this stuff should be obvious.

The fact that Bee is a woman doesn't magically erase the structural and systemic nature of this kind of language. Of course, it would be worse if she were a man, but it's absolutely the standard feminist line that you shouldn't use the word "cunt" in that sort of context.