Does the Solow Model hold up in emerging market funds vs developed nations established indexes?
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In general yes.
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Convergence happens in the Solow model because the MPK is higher in poor countries. What does that have to do with decolonialization? What I took away from your blog post is that we still don’t understand endogenous growth.
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The idea is that decolonization eventually (after a few decades) spurred some amount of institutional convergence, which is now leading to unconditional convergence.
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Non-economist, not understanding Google's answers to this question: what exactly is the Solow Model?
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