Clickbait, meet reality.pic.twitter.com/XbCPAclBZF
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So capitalism didn’t reduce poverty until it did. Not a strong endorsement for causality.
But it is. Until the 60s, most of the world was shackled by colonialism. After that, much of the world shackled itself via communism. First decolonization, then the end of communism freed countries to participate in the global (capitalist) economy, leading them to flourish.
What’s the data in the Soviet Union then? They achieved very impressive growth thru industrialization before the collapse. Did value of consumption increase for most of the population during that time?
They first had total economic disaster with mass starvation, then got good growth for a little while, then flatlined in the 70s. All in all, a pretty damn poor performance, if you compare to, say, other European countries.
But if growth itself is enough to reduce poverty, to any appreciable extent, then my point stands. You have to separate the effects of the two. My claim is a modest one: common ownership of the means of production isn’t inconsistent with lifting people out of poverty
Are you forgetting the mass starvation step
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