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Under English contract law at least, only “reasonably foreseeable” losses can be claimed. There’s lots of jurisprudence setting the rules by which judges can try to determine this. It seems equitable that this should be the case.
That's only one aspect of one phase, the remedies phase. There are a whole bunch of other doctrines that also limit or zero liability in these cases.
Seems fair that there would be, and even relying on reasonable foreseeability alone would reduce the quantum to a minuscule fraction of the claim.
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