universal literacy ; reading occurs only when there is enough wealth and social organization to actively train people to it further, self education was a thing, and literacy, while not universal, was not uncommon in, say, 1200 or 1500 AD
> we can very coherently argue you can argue, but you can not "Very coherently argue" reading takes education education takes time and money literacy fell exactly when the Roman empire entered economic decline and then fell reading was not "restricted" from a baseline of >
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there is no sense in which it was "restricted", and absolutely it was not "deliberately" hearing assertions like this, in contradiction to facts, hurts my brain and makes every one of us dumber
End of conversation
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