I discuss here how the CAPE can be highly misleading in a world with buybacks. https://lt3000.blogspot.com/2017/02/why-cape-multiple-is-fatally-flawed.html?m=1 …
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Replying to @LT3000Lyall @Greenbackd
I'm not an experienced stock guy, but I think the math here is not right. 1. If you're retiring 1 out of 15 shares every year, EPS would compound at 15/14 - 1 = 7.14% per year 2. You say that the market cap and earnings are the same. Therefore, cape for each should be the same.pic.twitter.com/gvnFC199ND
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3. The mathematical operation you used to get 19.7x is not equivalent to the mathematical operation used to get 15x. Market Cap(today)/Average(Earnings(1), ..., Earnings(10)) =/= Share Price(today)/Average(EPS(1), ..., EPS(10)) Because the # of shares in each year changes.
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CAPE is not fatally flawed, but I do think that using it across eras with different tax regimes is difficult. CAPEs should be higher after the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act of 2017, for example, as it lowered the tax rate on C corp earnings.
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No response on this?
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Replying to @Molson_Hart @Greenbackd
Not much to add other than what is in the article. The impact of buybacks being favoured over dividends is not factored into CAPE multiples, for reasons I discuss in my article. On taxes, ppl would argue pre-tax margins adjust over time to maintain constant ROICs.
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Replying to @LT3000Lyall @Greenbackd
That doesn’t make sense. That view relies on math errors in the article. Separately, if pretax margins improve to maintain constant ROICs then I’m right that it increases CAPE because price remains constant while earnings drop.
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Replying to @Molson_Hart @Greenbackd
There are no math errors in the article. With no variance in operating earnings, buybacks increase EPS. Dividends do not. CAPE uses 7-yr average inflation-adjusted EPS, so CAPE will be higher under buyback scenario. On latter para, no because CAPE uses post-tax EPS.
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Replying to @LT3000Lyall @Greenbackd
I can’t believe you’re doing this. There are obvious math errors. Earnings/shares = EPS. Retiring 1 in 15 share is like multiplying shares by 14/15. Therefore EPS after retiring is 15/14*EPS = 1.071*EPS. You’re article says 1.067 coming from 1+1/15 which is wrong.
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Replying to @Molson_Hart @Greenbackd
Ps no because as I noted in the article, I assumed the buyback happened at the END of the year (same time dividend would be paid) AFTER the earnings have been earned that can finance the buyback/dividend. So the price of buyback was 16/15th of T=0 starting point.
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Yeah...like I said. Doesn’t make sense. The article is all wrong and you’re just verbal and math diarrhea-ing your way around that. Lame.
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