@GabrielDuquette @themattsimpson Jaynes thought “Aristotelian logic” meant “two-valued T/F logic.”
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@GabrielDuquette @themattsimpson That’s because “Non-Aristotelian logic” means “multi-valued,” for historical reasons. - 4 more replies
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@themattsimpson “1.8.2 Nitpicking” p. 23 in http://www.med.mcgill.ca/epidemiology/hanley/bios601/GaussianModel/JaynesProbabilityTheory.pdf … He’s utterly confused
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@themattsimpson He misunderstands propositional vs predicate and Aristotelian vs predicate and Aristotelian vs non-Aristotelian, inter alia
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@themattsimpson Ah, that’s important. Computational complexity is not my issue. It’s massively incomplete even with free Bayesian updates.
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@themattsimpson The point is that Bayes only subsumes propositional logic. No quantification.
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I abandoned my essay explaining why Bayes is not a theory of rationality when I realized no one was stupid enough to actually think that.
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Maybe I need to update that hypothesis? This was concerning Cox’s Theorem, in particular. Is anyone actually confused about that?
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@themattsimpson
@GabrielDuquette Yeah, my essay went through increasingly complex examples to build up the intuition. -
@themattsimpson
@GabrielDuquette I guess if it’s not clear to you (or Scott Aaronson) I ought to write it up after all!
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