@semiotechnic Once you start saying X *more* likely than Y, you are quantifying. Seems unavoidable common sense.
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Replying to @simplic10
@simplic10@semiotechnic ...cardinal model supporting any given ordinal quantification, but it's not clear whether you'd gain any info.3 replies 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @St_Rev
@St_Rev@semiotechnic >... if you choose Red Sox, seems to imply you think Red Sox victory has prob > 1/20 M.2 replies 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @simplic10
@simplic10@semiotechnic ...but I don't think that implies that P(red sox victory) is quantifiable.2 replies 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @St_Rev
@St_Rev@semiotechnic P(Red Sox Victory) is BOTH non-quantifiable AND has prob greater than 1/20M?1 reply 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @simplic10
@simplic10@semiotechnic Yes. You're mistaking abuse of notation for proof. Here P and > are shorthand for looser concepts of likelihood.9 replies 0 retweets 0 likes
@St_Rev @simplic10 @semiotechnic Putting this another way, Bayesianism “reduces” everything to choosing numerical priors. But >
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