My current Twitter name highlights the fact that the function f(z)=1/(1-z) has the property that f(f(f(z))) = z. Here's a nice way to visualise that:pic.twitter.com/Rbw5RHeZ56
Note that the same thing is true of g(z) = (z - 1)/z. That is, we also have g(g(g(z))) = z. Also not an accident.
-
-
This is true for any involution.
Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
-
Loading seems to be taking a while.
Twitter may be over capacity or experiencing a momentary hiccup. Try again or visit Twitter Status for more information.