even if f (x) gives the same value for all x?
Only if you discretize them prematurely. A "true" bayesian, w/ infinite computing power, has exactly one choice; picking their utility f(x).https://twitter.com/enkiv2/status/816405431610445825 …
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If you want to have no preferences over all possible outcomes, that would be valid. (But strange - am I misunderstanding?)
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