How can it be that "The definition of an illicit financial flow has always included tax avoidance" if no consensus. & many don't?
I have read both HLP reports - neither give the clear impression that IFF definition incl. avoidance (UNECA report hedges both ways)
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Interagency WP on concepts is 20 ps, sets out different views on defn & Q of avoidance is in or out - they wld have said if it was clear!
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Can't see how to infer from those pp. Is Avoidance illicit (not illegal), esp as Courts accept it? A thread on Twitter is done in darkness?
End of conversation
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