“Research and policy analysis on illicit financial flows are unanimous in including multinational tax abuses in the definition" ?? Really?https://twitter.com/alexcobham/status/878294796665856000 …
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Lack of agreement extends to *which* multinational tax abuses are included, not whether any are. Do you know a definition excluding all?
Core definition seems to be illegally earned/transferred/utilised + cross border - so includes so tax related illicit flows = evasion
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That's the narrowest definition I think, yes - so you'd agree none would exclude multinationals?
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How can it be that "The definition of an illicit financial flow has always included tax avoidance" if no consensus. & many don't?
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