B/c some ppl have 0 wealth,we sh'd not do wealth inequality any more? B/c some ppl have jobs we sl'd not do UE stats? http://goo.gl/WGGhws
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Replying to @BrankoMilan
@BrankoMilan the analysis has problems, all methods do. I think this tells a story that is more true than not. But happy for mods/improvmnts2 replies 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @niawag2011
@niawag2011 I am defending your (JIm Davies et al) approach & disagreeing with Salmon. Pl.. have a look..1 reply 0 retweets 1 like -
Replying to @BrankoMilan
@BrankoMilan yes, understood. appreciated. just adding moral support.@rivefuentes@vngalasso2 replies 0 retweets 1 like -
Replying to @niawag2011
Maya Forstater Retweeted Oxfam International
@niawag2011@BrankoMilan@rivefuentes I think its the dissonance between soundbite/picture and data that bugs peoplehttps://twitter.com/Oxfam/status/557178793291677696 …Maya Forstater added,
1 reply 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @MForstater
@niawag2011@BrankoMilan@rivefuentes ie top 1% incs London homeowners & bottom 10% incs MBA grads-not obvious frm 'Oxfam' vs 'Jetset' image1 reply 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @MForstater
@MForstater@niawag2011@rivefuentes Quite possible; this is not a measure of who is poor by consumption.For that you need a diff. metric.1 reply 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @BrankoMilan
@BrankoMilan@niawag2011@rivefuentes right. Is fine methodologically that there are 50 mn Americans & 11 mn Germans etc in the bottom 10%..2 replies 0 retweets 0 likes -
Replying to @MForstater
@MForstater@niawag2011@rivefuentes Sure, 27% of Germans have 0 wealth.1 reply 0 retweets 0 likes
@BrankoMilan and 50% of people in the UK are in the global top 1%? (is that right!?)
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