From a consequentialist point of view, option A women = biological sex, option B women = self identified gender, what changes? The overlap between these two sets in terms of the individuals they include, is what 99%? So analysis of e.g education outcomes, is substantially same
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What do you mean by "gender" here Paddy? Is it the objective fact of being recognisably female to self & others (i.e. The same as sex), is it the choice to present in a way that is associated with feminine stereotypes? Is it innate "gender identity" (womanly personality)?
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It's a magic trick If u could close the paygap by just dressing men as women instead of paying for maternity leave for pesky females, won't u? And that's why Corporates r lapping up this shit
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