To be fair, in the Vienna paper it is spelled out. But caveats are quickly discarded. As Alex notes he does not make it clear in his recent briefing. What is the chance that anyone else will make the distinction if the indicator is made the official UN marker for "illicitness"?
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(excuse the cut and paste fail before)
Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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Really?
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I think so. Per jurisdiction: ((Share of global profits) - (Share of 'real activity' (=Average of share of global employee headcount + share of global sales)) X global profits = misaligned profits. Maybe I'm doing it wrong (Alex - is this the right calculation?)
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