genuinely angered by the normie take here. why would we look at an anonymous writer using a very obvious and distinct noun associated with mike pence and think 'i have outsmarted the writer by noticing this very obvious and distinct noun.'
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i would find the assertion that 'the anonymous writer used that word to make us think he was actually pence using a word associated with him in a ploy to make us think the anonymous author was an idiot making a bad ploy to make us think he was pence.'
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more believable, which is a fifth level ploy. i will not believe anything that involves a ploy of a lower level than at least that. who knows, maybe it really was pence making us think it was a fifth level ploy.
End of conversation
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please tell who you think it is
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