ANSWER ME NOW HARDSCI! Or, are you just a softsci? [Boarding a cross country flight as an excuse to not respond back, ever.]
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That's not correct. Implicit bias tests do not presume that perceived differences are false. In fact, much of the literature on attitude formation with implicit bias measures assesses their sensitivity to actual contingencies observed in the environment.
Why is it called 'bias' then? My guess is that stereotype accuracy will correlate with these response bias effects. Quicker processing of typical cases seems reasonable, odd cases require extra scrutiny because the prior is lower.
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Bias in psychological use doesn’t necessarily imply immoral or unwanted see eg SDT. Also, Banaji, Nosek, & Greenwald 2004 and others. Theory emphasizes ordinariness of bias and its moral assessment is often independent of the cognitive processes.
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"Bias" does seem to mean that. But it does not follow because response time differences aren't shown to be a bias until it is shown that they are larger than what is reasonable. Analogous to test bias, can't prove bias by showing a group gap. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bias pic.twitter.com/jFv6lgqWAt
End of conversation
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