Emil O W Kirkegaard

Maybe you don't accept the premise that bias is heritable? If not, what definition of heritability are you using?

I mean, one very obvious way in your question is just including skin tone along with IQ etc. to predict income. When that is done, skin tone has just about no validity. I am currently working on a big paper where I did these kinds of regressions for 5 large public datasets.

So, if IQ differences had some causal influence from bias against skin tone (attitudes of educators, self-identification, verbal abuses and other stressors), wouldn’t that day set hide that info behind the racial IQ gap?

I mean, that’s kind of the reason I’m asking too. Your response has all of these assumptions in it - about which kinds of biases can affect development in this way, what directions those affectors have moved.. What is the actual signal you use to make those conclusions?

It seems an interesting approach to rest the conclusions that the gaps are strongly genetic on the assertion that there is no racism or bias. That path requires fighting against a whole array of potential abuse sources, many with years of research.

And it seems to have to fight against lived experience too. I mean, as a white male, I grew up with a number of bigotries from my family that took well into adulthood to see. Many in my friends and family circles were openly racist, and this is liberal US coastal areas.