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Maybe you don't accept the premise that bias is heritable? If not, what definition of heritability are you using?
I mean, one very obvious way in your question is just including skin tone along with IQ etc. to predict income. When that is done, skin tone has just about no validity. I am currently working on a big paper where I did these kinds of regressions for 5 large public datasets.
So, if IQ differences had some causal influence from bias against skin tone (attitudes of educators, self-identification, verbal abuses and other stressors), wouldn’t that day set hide that info behind the racial IQ gap?
All the results were in line with cognitive meritocracy, not any kind of discrimination, being the only or vastly more important explanation. Theoretical model looks like this.pic.twitter.com/QqF9sYlAMM
Exactly my point from my other response:https://twitter.com/ex0du5_5utu7e/status/984870187563286528?s=21 …
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