Emil O W Kirkegaard

let's pivot instead to where I showed you that lower-income immigrants have faster convergence than higher income ones, and that 30-yrs-post-migration there's no correlation at all between income and origin income. Thoughts?

Yes are you talking about this tweet: https://twitter.com/lymanstoneky/status/960621325214801922 …? I wanted to ask you more about what you did but then I got distracted by the heritability discussion. Can you tell me exactly what are the data you used and what are X and Y here?

Sure. X axis is GDP per capita in 1983 for all countries for which World Bank has that data AND for which ACS 2011-2015 has a detailed-place-of-birth field. Y axis is average personal income (2011-2015) of all those of a given place of birth who immigrated 1984 or earlier.

i.e. I'm comparing immigrants who've been here 30 years to the income of their home countries when they left them.

If you tilt your head and squint you might convince yourself rich-country immigrants are better than middle-income-country immigrants... but poor country immigrants seem just fine?

No, no, I'm fine with using 1983 GDP per capita. But I would like to see this weighted by number of immigrants if you're going to calculate the correlation. There also seems to be an awful lot of countries with a really tiny GDP per capita even in 2013.

The technical term for that is "Africa." (or, rather, "the developing world". Though, yeah, World Bank does seem to be spitting out a bit lower numbers than I had in my noggin. But I didn't fiddle with it at all; just generic real GDP per capita)