Emil O W Kirkegaard

I mean, given that PGS are based on autosomes, it's pretty obvious that there can't be gender differences in any PGS.

There is nothing stopping them from being sex-specific in theory, but I don't think it's surprising either that they aren't in practice.

How would that work, given the nature of meiosis?

Imagine that some trait has a sex hormone influence with some maximum somewhere between normal male and female levels. Genes that feminize would raise this trait for men on average, and genes that masculinize would raise this trait for women on average.

Then there are also social contexts. It is possible that men and women need different traits to achieve the same goal. Hypothetically, that certain personality traits are more or less important depending on sex in (for example) getting high grades or earning much money.

In that case polygenic scores would for high grades or polygenic scores for earnings would differ by sex.

Polygenic scores can't differ by sex, since they are defined by autosomes, and they are created by meiosis independently of sex in each generation.

I still don't see it. Even if the sexes don't differ on the autosomes, it is still not guaranteed that the correlations between the genetic variants and the phenotypes would be the same for males and females. Why is this guaranteed?