Weird way to say, “no clue, I just pulled it out of my ass”, but ok
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Just to add to this you can find the same sort of arguments being made about Italian, Spanish, and other Southern/Eastern European immigrants to the United States in the 1920s. The same arguments about the gap being genetic. All the groups rose to the American average by the 50s.pic.twitter.com/q6FfV5p6Mw
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You'd have to ask Thomas Sowell about the rises to be sure since it was his research, not mine. But I believe first language was used. Statistics come from American Ethnic Groups (1978).pic.twitter.com/Jke1NlYPlJ
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It makes it far less likely. Groups still speaking Italian or Polish as a first language in the 60s or 70s usually marry within in Polish or Italian families.
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For these data to be a convincing relevant prior, one has to establish 1) IQs were reliably measured and low, 2) children of these had reliably measured and much higher IQs. I don't think anyone has ever established measurement invariance in these old data, but good research q.
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Replying to @KirkegaardEmil @mondoblando and
It's a curious case where critics disregard measurement issues in group differences research, which is otherwise something critics are highly skeptical about. We must suspect quite strong or cultural language bias if Italians got IQs in 80s! Maybe one can find nonverbal scores.
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Both the Kimball article and Clifford Kirkpatrick book discuss the "verbal handicap" hypothesis and go over nonverbal scores or language controls as well. The nonverbal and English language proficient testers produced the same results.pic.twitter.com/Uw2exFIcFJ
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I was referring to requiring formal tests of measurement invariance and DIF testing. I've had a paper rejected by a reviewer who demanded a full MI testing before would even consider a group difference -- a standard no one else is held to.
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