I guess you could look instead of posting on Twitter.
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For these data to be a convincing relevant prior, one has to establish 1) IQs were reliably measured and low, 2) children of these had reliably measured and much higher IQs. I don't think anyone has ever established measurement invariance in these old data, but good research q.
It's a curious case where critics disregard measurement issues in group differences research, which is otherwise something critics are highly skeptical about. We must suspect quite strong or cultural language bias if Italians got IQs in 80s! Maybe one can find nonverbal scores.
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Both the Kimball article and Clifford Kirkpatrick book discuss the "verbal handicap" hypothesis and go over nonverbal scores or language controls as well. The nonverbal and English language proficient testers produced the same results.pic.twitter.com/Uw2exFIcFJ
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I was referring to requiring formal tests of measurement invariance and DIF testing. I've had a paper rejected by a reviewer who demanded a full MI testing before would even consider a group difference -- a standard no one else is held to.
End of conversation
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