A point I’m getting ready to make to a certain audience. Residual variance is NOT evidence of racism, discrimination, change, or anything else (except maybe measurement error).
"Unexplained variance therefore discrimination", the sociologist's second fallacy in action. http://www.soc.ucsb.edu/faculty/telles/uploads/8/7/5/2/87525260/1998_does_it_matter_who_answers_the_race_question__racial_classification_and_income_inequality_in_brazil.pdf …pic.twitter.com/j17zV9URnd
-
-
-
It can be. If you have a situation where there are 3 causes of Y, and you controlled for X1 and X2, the remaining part is due to X3 (+ measurement error). Of course, this assumption is rarely satisfied in practice.
-
Especially with correlational data.
End of conversation
New conversation -
-
-
Envy motivating the premise that groups must be equal in outcome.
Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
-
Loading seems to be taking a while.
Twitter may be over capacity or experiencing a momentary hiccup. Try again or visit Twitter Status for more information.