I don't see why IF should be expected to correlate with pathogenicity? Or is the database they source exclusively populated with gene-disease association studies?
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In other words, do the authors exclusively look at reported pathogenicity levels (e.g., effect sizes of associations?) and find that the reliability of these reports is not related with IF?
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Yes, reports in higher IF journals do not seem to show more likely pathogeneticity than those in lower IF journals.
End of conversation
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