Minimum wage, at national level (the first state was Massachusetts in 1912), was imposed in the 30s. Coincidently when the gap started.
The US Black-White unemployment gap is a post-WW2 thing. Due to some kind of cultural change? Too generous welfare? Disappearance of low skilled jobs (tech unemployment)? https://people.ucsc.edu/~rfairlie/papers/published/ilrr%201999%20-%20racial%20unemployment.pdf …pic.twitter.com/B6UpU0l8Ck
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Your rubbish. First, as explained in the paper, the gap started to widen in the 30s. The 30s is a decade BEFORE 40s (specifically, 1944). Second, even on your own terms, it was minimum wage that didn´t allow unemployed black people to enter in other sectors that expanded.pic.twitter.com/QSZCqvKqom
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Your 1st comment was wrong and now you have to get back to 30s trying to appeal to some machine. The use and production of tractors started before 30s, no gap there. Again even in your own new desperate escape, minimum wage can explain the gap as I said in my previous 2nd pointpic.twitter.com/ExX034FUKB
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Of course you can´t even note that tractor use and production was increasing before 30s with no important race unemployment gap, what destroys your "tech unemployment hypothesis". Don't worry. I never expected honesty from you. Bye.
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Looks like it began in the 1930s, or during the Great Depression, not after WWII.
Thanks. Twitter will use this to make your timeline better. UndoUndo
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Kinda sorta. Not effect of time in meta-analysis of correlations (Strenze 2007), but variance in income went up, so returns to IQ in USD went up, but not the correlation (it seems). https://www.gwern.net/docs/iq/2007-strenze.pdf …
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