I have yet to see a convincing meta-analysis on this subject. All of the reasonably broad ones I have encountered fail to reject the null for a difference in mean, though most show marginally higher variance for males. Obviously also depends on the subscales and coeffs for g.
Probably not. But I'd bet that there's pub bias in favor of null sex differences.
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Overall? Perhaps. In this publication, though, I might reasonably expect the opposite. Anyway, need meta-analysis to make much sense of the results as a whole.
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