Another one bites the dust; this one, from cognitive developmental psych.https://twitter.com/anthonystevend/status/1016052212022333440 …
I skimmed a bit and didn't find any evidence of this. E.g. https://files.eric.ed.gov/fulltext/ED020491.pdf …pic.twitter.com/8jZBUaKP5W
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"My purpose here is to apprise the reader of two major fallacies in the popular argument: (1) that of interpreting an observed association in cause-and-effect terms, i.e. that because P is observed to be associated with Q, it is necessarily true that P causes Q; and"
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(2) that the majority of "somehow comparable" groups of monolinguals and bilinguals which have been compared as if bilingualism were the critical variable, are in fact not "otherwise equally matched".
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"A somewhat analogous affective distinction is manipulated by American realtors who beguilingly extend the term home into linguistic contexts where most of us would say house.)" The realtors have won this battle, unfortunately.
End of conversation
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