Northern (Israelite) #Hebrew also attests 𐤔𐤕!
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Ohh nice, where exactly? I mean what source?
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Is sant or sanat more original?
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Maybe both. I believe it was Steiner who thinks -at/-t were allomorphs in proto-semitic. Am I getting that right
@bnuyaminim ? - Još 1 odgovor
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It's striking how phonological processes developed concurrently in different Semitic languages. That n→X / _X rule in Akkadian (and Hebrew), t→0 / _]w rule in Arabic (and Hebrew) but weirdly not in Moabite (which is so close to Biblical Hebrew otherwise)
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The t > 0 / _# is not pan-Arabic either. To be more accurate, it is at > ah > a / _#; it affects a sub-set of Old Arabic for which we can posit significant Aramaic contact. What is strange is its operation in only pause in conventional Classical Arabic...
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As ever your Semitic word posting shows that the speakers/writers of those languages have so much in common.
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We are , like that , despite what we are witnessing now .
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In Sumerian: 𒈬 mu
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