Psychoanalysis and feminism led to atheism and sexual liberation, anthropology led to cultural relativism, and the frankfurt school led to societal existentialism. There's no need to kick against the pricks. 6/
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Atheism predates all of those things-- do you know who De Sade is? Does history begin for you in the 20th century? It's just absolutely silly nonsense.
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I'm to understand your point to be: Atheists existed in the 18th C, therefore the 18th C was atheistic (?)
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The 18th century elites were very atheistic lol
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Does that answer the question?
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Staging a political cartoon in which Jews are pouring Atheism over Europa. This is the depth here.
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Just want to make sure I've got your position down here: that 18th C and 20th C Europe have equal amounts of religious feeling, yes?
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How do you measure "religious feeling"? Do you see the game framing you make here implicitly? What criterion determines that? Do you have the charts? This fake empiricism is a joke.
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However you would like to frame it: quantitatively or qualitatively -- though I've tried that already and you dodged. It seems there isn't any proper way to frame a pretty simple question.
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Because the question is itself stupid!
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I never thought I'd get so much epistemological scrutiny on the idea that society has gotten less religious over the past two centuries. I think I've been identified as 'enemy/dunce' right now and it doesn't matter what I say and you'll just keep poking holes for your boy so l8r
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