eh i went ahead and did this https://brilliant.org/community-problem/gamblers-fallacy/ …
@chaotic_iak In general it is (total number of tails so far +1)/(total number of flips so far +2)
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@Jack_L_Lance If the prior probability is different, what's the result? -
@chaotic_iak You mean if it is from range [p,q] not [0,1]? Then integrals become messy and there is no neat and short formula I think. - 1 more reply
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