The exponential of the derivative translates a function 𝑓(𝑥) by an amount εpic.twitter.com/mwQ1aLpOHt
PhD student of Theoretical Particle Physics @UCIrvine l @NSF Fellow l Physics & Math Animations l Patreon: https://www.patreon.com/inertialobserver …
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The exponential of the derivative translates a function 𝑓(𝑥) by an amount εpic.twitter.com/mwQ1aLpOHt
I tried to interpret this intuitively but am struggling because it relies on the spooky action at a distance enjoyed by analytic functions and is false for general infinite-dimensional functions. Pretty cool though.
that's true .. I think my Physicist is showing .. we damn near always assume analyticity and function/finite number or arguments
There's something I find very weird about assuming analyticity in physics. It basically means you are assuming perfect knowledge of what's going on outside of your lightcone, right? Which seems to me... odd.
Sure but that's why we impose locality of operators
This is already over my head... How does that stop you knowing what's outside of your light cone? At least classically, analyticity means you would know, right?
If the operators are local operators they by definition within the light cone .. if you have local operators + Lorentz invariant lagragian you’re good to go
But like, say they measure quantity A, which is analytic. So you measure it in a small neighbourhood of where you stand, and then you've got all its derivatives so you know the value of quantity A *everywhere* (or am I missing something because I know next to undergrad in QM)
you're right if we're talking about pure QM .. that theory is not relativistic .. this was one of the reasons why we developed QFT
I guess I am just completely lost then
I was just thinking pure classically tbh. If something is analytic then knowing what it is on some open set will tell you what it is everywhere. But I have no idea what the analytic things going into QTF are, nor coming out of it :P
neither do i hah
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