@litgenstein can one be a finitist (properly so-called) without being a mathematical platonist?
to me the two are inseparable
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Idk I only have material evidence for finite processes. Seems to me that infinite things are the platonic ones.
But they very fact you’re defining an equivalence relation between physical objects and mathematical objects is itself the planotism I’m talking about
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I’m saying all my mathematical objects are physical.
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Hype is the number 2 physical? (You cannot refer time objects in your answer)
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Plus I’m pretty sure that reasoning concludes that anyone who engages in math is a Platonist, finitist or not.
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Not an association .. an ontological equivalence relation
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