As a physicist I have issues with this. If an event has occurred within any arbitrary time period than it's probability of occurring must not have been zero...but rather some epsilon. Maybe this is a limit thing? I'll have to look into it.
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Replying to @cenobyte3 @mathpocalypse
Think of it like this. If I ask you to pick a number on the real line, they you *almost surely* wouldn't pick a natural number, since they have zero measure in the reals. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Almost_surely …
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In real life you can get around that because your observation is never a specific real number, but rather some small interval of real numbers.
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Right, but even if you chose a small interval of reals, the logic is the same
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Is it? A small interval has non zero measure. You have to assume that a real value for the random variable on the continuum exists. Maybe all you ever get are intervals of various sizes
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This is what I mean (it may not be what you intended to say): Consider a segment of the real line w. length very large N. If you place an ε interval around each integer, then the P that you pick the interval around 7 is 2ε/N, but as N->∞ this probability vanishes.
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You can't have a uniform distribution on the reals, so it wouldn't be a probability space. Any pdf needs to be in L^1
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Replying to @FakeMeows @InertialObservr and
Basically, if you have a pdf for real numbers you are randomly choosing, with full support, that are truly unbounded, then any open interval has positive probability.
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That's why I chose it to be a large finite N, and by N gets large I meant "large but finite"
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If it's large but finite then you have positive probabilities. I think this might be a mathematician vs physicist issue? The sequence of distributions U[0,n] doesn't converge to a distribution. You're passing to thr limit case when it's not allowed
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Hahaha this is absolutely definitely a mathematician vs physicist problem:)
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